Here is an interesting topic....When I was buying my S&W 642, I was told by the "guy behind the counter", be glad you decided to buy the hammerless model because the prosecutor would have a field day with you if you bought the one with the hammer and ever had to use it.
--His argument/belief is that if the prosecutor could prove you cocked the hammer to fire the first shot, then you have enough time to evade the situation, and shouldn't have used the firearm at all. ALSO, if you had the time to cock the hammer and aim at the 'victim' then, it was also premeditated and you were looking for a chance to use the firearm and not other options.
I would like to hear others thoughts on this, and although my decision was not influenced by this discussion, I wonder how accurate this information might be, I think some of it may make some sense, as I have heard worse arguments from the bleeding heart lib, tree huggin', gun grabbin' lawyers.
I wrote this under carry gun becuase it is about a certain type of gun. If the moderators see fit to move it, I totally understand.
Thanks for reading and I look forward to a good discussion.