Originally Posted by
KoriBustard
Would you prefer to see criminals have unfettered access to firearms so that no aspect of your 2a rights are abridged, or would you be willing to take some logical steps (not necessarily the one I asked about) to keep arms in the hands of law-abiding citizens yet reduce access by criminals? Or, would any measure to do so be perceived by you as an "infringement?
Sorry, but not sure how the question is loaded unless by saying "a criminal having a gun" implies criminal intent. Well, in that case that is exactly what I meant by the use of the term "criminal" so sorry if I wasn't more direct. Felons sacrifice all types of rights (voting is an example) and there are 100's of years of constitutional precedent to support this. My question has evoked a much wider range of responses (and of a very different sort) than I had imagined. This has been very educational for me. Maybe our definition of the word "criminal" needs to be better defined.
So let's get to brass tacks. When a man like William Spengler bludgeons his grandmother to death and serves (I can't believe it) only 17 years in prison, is this the type of criminal who should be afforded the rights of the 2nd Amendment? (I hope there is nothing "loaded" about that question.)
Would you prefer to see criminals have unfettered access to firearms so that no aspect of your 2a rights are abridged, or would you be willing to take some logical steps (not necessarily the one I asked about) to keep arms in the hands of law-abiding citizens yet reduce access by criminals? Or, would any measure to do so be perceived by you as an "infringement?