What Changed That Made 2A "Invalid"?
There is an 11 page thread (at time of this post) arguiing thet armed civilians are no match against a "Modern Army".
It is said that stating historical past events such as The War of Independence, War of 1812, War of Northern Agression, etc can not be used to contrast the situation that would be applicable today.
The question I ask is, WHY!?!
The War of Independence was not fought between two vastly technologically different forces. Today's situation would severly tip the scales in the favor of a govt sponsored Military Unit.
Artillery pieces large and small were held as the private property of individuals in colonial times. Firearms were similiar in those days.
Today, no way.
The Federal Govt has been over the period of 100 years making it less and less likely that the citizen has the technology to stand up against it.
I mean todays FFA bans and such would be like limiting the Colonists to Blunderbusses and dueling pistols.
Am I wrong to say that? Am I wrong to believe this way? Am I missing something?